Social Studies, 26.06.2020 15:01 keaton846
Jimmy has used his neighbor's property to run his cattle across for several years. He never spoke to the neighbor about it, nor did the neighbor speak to him about it. His cattle were in the open for all to see and Jimmy continued to do this for 20 years. Jimmy determined that his neighbor might sell the property some day so he decided to get the right to use the property himself without buying it. Is there a way he can legally do this?
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