If a function is one-to-one, then its inverse is a function. true or false?

Yes, the inverse would be a function. Allow me to explain.

A function has an input x and an output y. An inverse function simply reverses the function. So for a 1:1 function, for every time x goes up by one, y also goes up one. So for the inverse of the function, it is the opposite. If I am not mistaken, every time y would go up one, x would go down one, and vice versa. That is the only part I am not 100% sure on, so I'd stick with the answer shown below.

Yes, the inverse of a 1:1 function would also be a function.

i can you with this answer

step-by-step explanation:

a. (14,375+570)(5.3) b. 158,417$

step-by-step explanation:

a. you are basically just setting up the equation. f= amount of debt hence 14,375. g= how much she is borrowing from her parents weekly hence 570 and t= the interest on her debt. creating the equation.

b.   14,375+570= 14,945

      14,945 x 5.3 = 79,208.5

      79,208.5 x 2(years) = 158,417(answer)