How were the motivations of the Spanish Empire in the 16th century and the British Empire in the 19th century similar? A. They both wished to subjugate indigenous people in their territories to bring more people under their monarch’s control.
B. They both wanted to use their territories as sources of raw goods for increased wealth and economic power.
C. They both sought to Christianize the territories under their control by forcing native peoples to convert.
D. They both sought to make political alliances by creating colonies that would become allies throughout the world.

B. They both wanted to use their territories as sources of raw goods for increased wealth and economic power.

Explanation:

Both the British and the Spanish viewed their colonies as a means to get raw materials cheaply so that they may increase the wealth of their respective nations which would also lead to increased economic power.

The British took advantage of the various industries on offer in the American colonies from ship building to plantation agriculture to increase their wealth and the Spanish exploited their colonies for agriculture and minerals.

e imma say squidward tentacles

explanation:

i think it is in quadrant 4.

the five year plans were part of a command economy. there was little choice in what would be emphasized for the current 5 year period.

the answer to democracy or totalitarianism is a bit harder. in stalin's time, russia was totalitarian. now that's not entirely true. putin has moved towards at least the boundary.