It is suggested that the judicial branch (courts) is just as political as the executive (governor) and legislative (legislature) branches of Texas government. Do you agree or disagree and why?

No, I do not think so.

Explanation:

I believe that since the courts are supposed to be non-biased they are non-biased. If they were biased we would have an infinite stronghold of certain political parties in the state. But since opinions have changed there isn't any substantial evidence there is such bias.

(This is an opinionated question, there is no real answer and there isnt a reason for us to do it for you)

bro these r easy u may have to do them urself bro. lol jk the answer is two for nimber one, and for question number two sahel boi xd have fun get rekt m8

the declaration states, “we hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their creator with certain unalienable rights, that among these are life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness….”