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Norman jones, an economic historian at the university of utah, has described the views of the ancient greek philosopher aristotle on interest: aristotle defined money as a good that was consumed by use. unlike houses and fields, which are not destroyed by use, money must be spent to be used. there- fore, as we cannot rent food, so we cannot rent money. moreover, money does not reproduce. a house or a flock can produce new value by use, so it is not unreasonable to ask for a return on their use. money, being barren, should not, therefore, be expected to produce excess value. thus, interest is unnatural. what did aristotle mean in arguing that money is “barren”? why would money being barren mean that lenders should not charge interest on loans? do you agree with aristotle’s reasoning? briefly explain.
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Social Studies, 23.06.2019 18:30, ultimateapes
How is a federal loan different from a private loan for an education? a federal loan is available for any student who meets the government’s lending standards. a private loan is only available for students who show a need. a federal loan is only available for students who show a need. a private loan is available for any student who meets the bank’s lending standards. a federal loan can only be used to pay for a student’s tuition. a private loan can be used to pay for a student’s tuition and any other expenses. a federal loan can be used to pay for a student’s tuition and any other expenses. a private loan can only be used to pay for a student’s tuition.
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