Why does Chamberlin suggest appeasement? Under what conditions would he fight?

at the time of Hitler´s ascension to power (1933) Britain is still world power and focal point of its power is situated in the seas, i.e. outside continental Europe. Hitler´s ambitions were situated in the East (Eastern Europe especially) which was a part of Europe Britain was not interested in. Chamberlain represented conservative government, i.e. continuation of 19th-century policy. Appeasement was a way how to satisfy Hitler (to give him what he wanted, for ex. Sudetenland in Czechoslovakia) to keep peace in Britain and its Empire.

Explanation: Chamberlain and conservative party of that time were not aware of Hitler´s capacities. They believed he would respect treaties, they believed he was a serious politician. He was not. They were naive.

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explanation:

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it should be c, women were allowed to vote in all states because federal law supersedes state law.

"states can make their own laws, as long as they don't contradict what the federal law states. the states do not have the authority to pass a law that negates a federal law." -google