Why do you think smith depicts the amerindians as "savage devils"? is it just cultural biases that are driving his opinions, or could he be thinking of his audience in england? if so, imagine you are a reader in 1624. how would his descriptions affect you? why do you think it was so difficult at that time to see the amerindians as human beings?

John Smith depicts the Amerindians as “savage devils” because their lifestyles were completely  

opposite. The Native Americans had a dark lifestyle, and were not familiar with the idea of  

He should be better known for his prophetic vision of America, both in his use of what would become a

dominant motif of early America – a Paradise of Endless Opportunity for the hard-working individual – and his

depiction of the inevitable conflict between the Europeans and the Amerindians,

1.

Smith employs a

Providential World View

in his History (a typical view in his day), in which God is

involved in all events of humankind, although Smith can be very selective in choosing when to

acknowledge God and when he wishes to acknowledge his own prowess. Smith consistently misreads

the Native Americans’ motives and disallows them any true virtue of their own. Powhatan offerschange that the Europeans were bringing to America. The cultural biases drove Smith’s opinions The president uses mass media to support political agenda. Media technologies enable the political leaders to reach a

Explanation:

would it be plagiarism to copy and paste off of here? ?

i am a priest who cares deeply about the church. i have been called here to explain my views on indulgences and other proposed reforms. i would like to explain why my views are consistent with the bible and are correct.