A 50-year-old patient presents for evaluation of recurrent swelling of his right leg. He had a prior common femoral vein DVT in the same leg 10 years ago, which resolved following anticoagulation. Upon ultrasound inspection, the common femoral vein does not fully collapse, no discrete thrombus is visualized, and the transverse diameter of the common femoral vein is increased by 6 mm as compared to his prior scan taken at the time of his original diagnosis. Based on these exam findings, what is the most appropriate next intervention

It is a clinic where patients with skin ailments are referred to. a. actinic keratosis b. biopsy c. cicatrices d. dermatitis e. dermatology f. keloids g. pruritus h. ulcers i. vesicles j. emollients

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Mr rogers is 2 days postoperative of a thoracotomy of removal of a malignant mass in his left chest. his pain is being managed via epidural catheter with morphine. as the nurse assumes care of mr rogers, he is alert and fully oriented and states that his current pain is 2 on a 1 -to-10 scale. his vital signs are 37.8-92-12, 138/82. what are benefits of epidural versus systemic administration of opioids? the nurse monitors mr roger’s respiratory status and vital signs every 2 hours. what is the rationale for this frequent assessments? the nurse monitors mr rogers for what other complications of epidural anelgesis?