When are rolle's theorem and the mean value theorem equivalent?

For a function  : for the secant line in the mean value theorem, if you choose an interval  (where is continuous on , differentiable on   such that  , then the mean value theorem and rolle's theorem are equivalent.if , the secant line will have a slope of 0, which agrees with rolle's theorem. for rolle's theorem: there will be at least one number  in such that  .for mean value theorem: there will be at least one number  in such that 

1. 0.3 •4 is the same as 4 groups of 0.32. 7•0.8 is the same as 7 groups of 0.83. it increases by 0.5 every time, so 0.5x4 it increases by 0.9 every time, so 0.9x5. 0.9•12=10.86. 0.47•5=2.35i can finish the next ones in a separate post

1200 inches = 30 yards12 inches= 1 foot3 feet= 1 yard3feet= 36 inchesyou can set up a proportion then use inverse operations that looks sorry it looks so sloppy lol