Can someone me understand why the mean travel for women is greater than the mean travel for men? problem words: "in san jose, the amount of time it took each person to get to work was recorded and rounded up to the nearest  555  minutes. the data collected for men and women are shown in the bar graph to the left"

< xcy ≅ < xby

step-by-step explanation:

in δcax and δbax,

so, δcax ≅ δbax (side-angle-side or sas)

since δcax ≅ δbax, we can conclude < acx ≅ < abx

in δacy and δaby,

so, δacy ≅ δaby (side-angle-side or sas)

since δacy ≅ δaby, we can conclude < acy ≅ < aby

now,

< acy ≅ < aby

=> < acx + < xcy ≅ < abx + < xby

=> < acx + < xcy ≅ < acx + < xby   (since < acx ≅ < abx already proved above)

subtracting < acx from both sides, we get

< acx + < xcy -< acx ≅ < acx + < xby -< acx

cancelling out < acx and -< acx from both sides, we get

< xcy ≅ < xby (proved)

1. sometimes

2.   never

3   .08c = 7.50+.05c   250 pages

step-by-step explanation:

1.   sometimes

the theoretical probability of rolling a 1 is 1/6.   perhaps you got really lucky and never rolled a 1   in those 60 times.   your experimental probability is 0.   or perhaps you rolled a 1   20 times.   your experimental probability is 20/60 is 1/3.     it really just depends on how you rolled in that experiment.

2.   never

the probability of the event occurring is 1.   that is being 100 % sure it will happen.   that is the maximum amount of confidence we have.

3.   no customer card cost:   .08 times number of pages

customer card cost:   7.50 + .05 times number of pages

we want to find when it costs the same amount, so we will set these equal

let c = number of pages

.08c = 7.50+.05c

subtract .05c from each side

.08c-.05c = 7.5+.05c-.05c

.03c=7.5

divide each side by .03

.03c/.03 = 7.5/03

c =250  

the cost is the same at 250 pages