A company manufactures penny number 2 nails that are 1 inch in length. The actual length is allowed to vary by up to \displaystyle \frac{1}{32} 32
1
​
inch.

a) Write and solve an absolute value equation to find the minimum and maximum acceptable nail length. (Use \displaystyle ll as the variable to represent length)

b) A penny number 2 nail is 1.05 inches long. Is the nail acceptable? Explain.

the formula for the equation of a circle is (x – h)2+ (y – k)2 = r2, where (h, k) represents the coordinates of the center of the circle, and r represents the radius of the circle. if a circle is tangent to the x-axis at (3,0), this means it touches the x-axis at that point.

i think it's eleven too, don't woosh me here, but according to the "experts" it's 2.

the proof starts from the peano postulates, which define the natural

numbers n. n is the smallest set satisfying these postulates:

  p1.   1 is in n.

  p2.   if x is in n, then its "successor" x' is in n.

  p3.   there is no x such that x' = 1.

  p4.   if x isn't 1, then there is a y in n such that y' = x.

  p5.   if s is a subset of n, 1 is in s, and the implication

      (x in s => x' in s) holds, then s = n.

then you have to define addition recursively:

  def: let a and b be in n. if b = 1, then define a + b = a'

      (using p1 and p2). if b isn't 1, then let c' = b, with c in n

      (using p4), and define a + b = (a + c)'.

then you have to define 2:

  def:   2 = 1'

2 is in n by p1, p2, and the definition of 2.

theorem:   1 + 1 = 2

proof: use the first part of the definition of + with a = b = 1.

      then 1 + 1 = 1' = 2   q.e.d.

note: there is an alternate formulation of the peano postulates which

replaces 1 with 0 in p1, p3, p4, and p5. then you have to change the

definition of addition to this:

  def: let a and b be in n. if b = 0, then define a + b = a.

      if b isn't 0, then let c' = b, with c in n, and define

      a + b = (a + c)'.

you also have to define 1 = 0', and 2 = 1'. then the proof of the

theorem above is a little different:

proof: use the second part of the definition of + first:

      1 + 1 = (1 + 0)'

      now use the first part of the definition of + on the sum in

      parentheses:   1 + 1 = (1)' = 1' = 2   q.e.d.

step-by-step explanation:

45.36 feet per second.

step-by-step explanation:

to find the most accurate determination for the number of feet per second tyrone traveled on his way to work let us convert miles to feet and minutes to seconds.

1 mile = 5280 feet.

1 minute = 60 seconds.

now we will divide 158400 by 3492 to find the most accurate determination for the number of feet per second tyrone traveled on his way to work.

therefore, tyrone traveled on his way to work at the rate of 45.36 feet per second.