Why would there be a difference between percentages with the Empirical Rule and the actual percentages?

Given that   is not the easiest equation to solve, and that

the values at the convenient ± 1 sigma,± 2 sigma,± 3 sigma are irrational

using the "rule-of-thumb" "empirical rule" is typically "close enough"

given that the whole probability analysis by definition has some uncertainty in it

Step-by-step explanation:

infinitely many solutions

step-by-step explanation:

we have been given the equation;

2(2x + 3) = -4 + 2(2x + 5)

we need to determine the value of x.

2(2x + 3), we expand this expression to obtain 4x + 6

similarly 2(2x + 5) will become 4x + 10

now we have;

4x + 6 = -4 + 4x + 10

4x + 6 = 4x + 10 - 4

4x + 6 = 4x + 6

the expression on the left hand side is identical to the one on the right hand side. therefore, we are looking at just a single straight line whose equation is;

y = 4x + 6

consequently, we shall have infinitely many solutions

slope is 35 and 20 miles is the y-intercept.

step-by-step explanation: