In the diagram below, tan e = V3. What is the value of m? f
y
(0, 1)
m
TI
*
(-1,0)
T
0
X
(1,0)
377
2
(0.-1)

180-142=38 for the acute angle next to the entry

90+38=128

180-128=52

a=52

step-by-step explanation:

answer: the answer is 110

(a) {a₁, a₁r, a₁r², … a₁rⁿ⁻¹, …}

(b) $59 398

step-by-step explanation:

(a) the annual sequence of profits

aₙ = a₁rⁿ⁻¹

the model for the sequence of profits is {a₁, a₁r, a₁r², … a₁rⁿ⁻¹, …} .

(b) profit after 15 yr

  a₁ = $ 30 000

  r = 1.05

a₁₅ = 30 000 × 1.05¹⁴

a₁₅ = 30 000 × 1.979 93

a₁₅ = $59 398

the profit in year 15 will be $59 398.