Can you guys help me pls

let's fu(!

step-by-step explanation:

hi there

the slope is 1/3.

this is because from the y-intercept, you go up one, and you go to the right three, to get to the next exact point on the graph. this is known at the “rise over run.”

p.s. (if you need it).your y-intercept is -2, because that is the point on the graph where the line crosses the y-axis.

hope that : )

place r′ so that qr′ is parallel to the tangent.

now we get that ∠r′py=∠pr′q, where y is on the tangent, on the opposite side of p from x.

also, because of the symmetry, ∠r′py=∠qpx.

finally, note that no matter where we place r, as long as it's on the correct arc, we have ∠prq=∠pr′q.

stringing all these equalities together, we end up with ∠prq=∠qpx.

this picture will show how its going to look like.

hope this by jack monhen

the answer is that it is true