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Mathematics, 07.10.2019 11:50 eiza666
Why would a maclauren series for f(x) = x^2*e^x^2 be 0 at f^(7)(0) and f^(9)(0) but 8! /3! at f^(8)(0)? i know how to find the series (x^2e^2^2 = x^2 + x^4 + x^6/2! + x^8/3! + you basically take the maclauren series for e^x, modify it for e^x^2, and then multiply that by x^2). i'm just confused why it's 8! /3! at f^(8)(0). shouldn't it be 0 as well since f^(8)(0) = x^18/8! and if x = 0 then 0^18/8! = 0? what am i missing?
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Why would a maclauren series for f(x) = x^2*e^x^2 be 0 at f^(7)(0) and f^(9)(0) but 8! /3! at f^(8)...
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