HELP this is due today

if you explain the the question more correctly i might be able to answer this better

step-by-step explanation:

this is the formula: v = the value of investment at the end of the time period

p = the principal amount (the initial amount invested)

r = the annual interest rate

n = the annual frequency of compounding (how many times a year interest is added)

t = the number of years the money is invested

^ means raise to the power of

sina-sinb

cosb+cosa

tana-tanb

cos0+cos x pi/3

20tan

step-by-step explanation:

place r′ so that qr′ is parallel to the tangent.

now we get that ∠r′py=∠pr′q, where y is on the tangent, on the opposite side of p from x.

also, because of the symmetry, ∠r′py=∠qpx.

finally, note that no matter where we place r, as long as it's on the correct arc, we have ∠prq=∠pr′q.

stringing all these equalities together, we end up with ∠prq=∠qpx.

this picture will show how its going to look like.

hope this by jack monhen