What is the side length

answer: ratio of volume of cone (with 3 times the height and equal diameter) to volume of cylinder is 2 to 1. the value of π is not used.

step-by-step explanation:

radius is diameter/2 = 4.

area of circle is π r^2.

volume of cylinder is height × area of base = hπr^2 = 3(4^2) π = 48π cubic inches.

not knowing the formula for volume of cone, i calculate it using calculus (which is for calculating things).

volume of cone is integral 0 to h area(y) dy. area(y) is π r(y)^2. r(y) runs r to zero as y runs zero to h, r(0) = r, r(h) = 0.

r(y) = r - r/h y

area(y) = π (r - r/h y)^2 = π (r^2 - 2r^2y/h + r^2y^2/h^2) = π r^2(1-2y/h+y^2/h^2)

antiderivative area(y) = π r^2 (y-y^2/h+y^3/(3h^2))

integral 0 to h = π r^2(h-h^2/h+h^3/(3h^2) - (0)) = π r^2(h - h + h/3) = π r^2(h/3) = π/3 r^2 h

volume of this cone is π/3(4^2)18 cubic inches.

= 6 16 π = 96π cubic inches.

cone has twice the volume, 96/48.

cone height is 6 times the cylinder.

ratio of volume formula: π r^2 cancels.

cone over cylinder ratio is 6h/3 to h, 2 to 1.

94

step-by-step explanation:

average the numbers and use a variable to figure out the minimum to get a 90.

(79+94+91+92+x)/5=90

x = 94

i think it's eleven too, don't woosh me here, but according to the "experts" it's 2.

the proof starts from the peano postulates, which define the natural

numbers n. n is the smallest set satisfying these postulates:

  p1.   1 is in n.

  p2.   if x is in n, then its "successor" x' is in n.

  p3.   there is no x such that x' = 1.

  p4.   if x isn't 1, then there is a y in n such that y' = x.

  p5.   if s is a subset of n, 1 is in s, and the implication

      (x in s => x' in s) holds, then s = n.

then you have to define addition recursively:

  def: let a and b be in n. if b = 1, then define a + b = a'

      (using p1 and p2). if b isn't 1, then let c' = b, with c in n

      (using p4), and define a + b = (a + c)'.

then you have to define 2:

  def:   2 = 1'

2 is in n by p1, p2, and the definition of 2.

theorem:   1 + 1 = 2

proof: use the first part of the definition of + with a = b = 1.

      then 1 + 1 = 1' = 2   q.e.d.

note: there is an alternate formulation of the peano postulates which

replaces 1 with 0 in p1, p3, p4, and p5. then you have to change the

definition of addition to this:

  def: let a and b be in n. if b = 0, then define a + b = a.

      if b isn't 0, then let c' = b, with c in n, and define

      a + b = (a + c)'.

you also have to define 1 = 0', and 2 = 1'. then the proof of the

theorem above is a little different:

proof: use the second part of the definition of + first:

      1 + 1 = (1 + 0)'

      now use the first part of the definition of + on the sum in

      parentheses:   1 + 1 = (1)' = 1' = 2   q.e.d.