Will mark brainliest! Can someone help an answer would be really helpful.

the equivalent expression are always the hardest ones but you look at the gcf also

step-by-step explanation:

1 number

if we use a graphing calculator, there is only one such number that satisfies the conclusion of the mean value theorem, that is, a number such that

where the right-hand side is the average rate of change of f on the interval [0.5,0.75], which is the slope of the secant line.

in the attached graph, the black line is the secant line which has its slope as the average rate of change of f on [0.5,0.75], while the orange line is the only tangent line to the graph of f in the interval that satisfies the mvt conclusion.

answer is because 4×10=40

and 98×4= is 392

40,392

1. sometimes

2.   never

3   .08c = 7.50+.05c   250 pages

step-by-step explanation:

1.   sometimes

the theoretical probability of rolling a 1 is 1/6.   perhaps you got really lucky and never rolled a 1   in those 60 times.   your experimental probability is 0.   or perhaps you rolled a 1   20 times.   your experimental probability is 20/60 is 1/3.     it really just depends on how you rolled in that experiment.

2.   never

the probability of the event occurring is 1.   that is being 100 % sure it will happen.   that is the maximum amount of confidence we have.

3.   no customer card cost:   .08 times number of pages

customer card cost:   7.50 + .05 times number of pages

we want to find when it costs the same amount, so we will set these equal

let c = number of pages

.08c = 7.50+.05c

subtract .05c from each side

.08c-.05c = 7.5+.05c-.05c

.03c=7.5

divide each side by .03

.03c/.03 = 7.5/03

c =250  

the cost is the same at 250 pages