Suppose 40% of the population of pre-teens have a TV in their bedroom. If a random sample of 500 pre-teens is drawn from the population, then the probability that between 36% and 44% of the pre-teens have a TV in their bedroom is: a) 0.9644
b) 0.4644
c) 0.0356
d) 0.9328
e) 0.0712

0.9328

Step-by-step explanation:

The mean of the sampling distribution is equal to

up = p = 0.40

The standard deviation = √pq/n

= √0.40x0.60/500

= √0.00048

= 0.0219

We compute the z values for the probability of 36% and 44%

When p = 0.36

z = 0.36-0.40/0.0219

= -1.83

When p = 0.44

z = 0.44-0.49/0.0219

= 1.813

From the standard normal distribution table. The probability associated with z values from Which we subtract the probability

P(0.36<=p<=0.44)

= P(-1.83<=z<=1.83)

P(z<=1.83)-p(z<=-1.83)

= 0.9664-0.0336

= 0.9328

Therefore the answer is 0.9328

dont trust me im no expert these losers made me fail a test bro this sucks

step-by-step explanation:

there are 70 more legs than eyes at the dog show (196 – 126 = 70). dogs have two more legs than eyes, and humans have the same number of legs as eyes. thus 70 is twice the number of dogs at the show, so the number of dogs is half of 70, which is 35. to get the number of humans, subtract 35 from 63: 63 – 35 = 28.

step-by-step explanation: