PLEASE HELP Use the graph of f(x) to explain the relationship
between the real zeros of f(x) and its intercept(s).

f(x) has one real zero at -2 because the graph of
the function has an intercept at (0, -2).
f(x) has two real zeros at -4 and -2 because the
graph of the function has intercepts at (-4,0) and (0,
-2).
f(x) has no real zeros because the graph of the
function does not pass through (0,0).
f(x) has one real zero at 4 because the graph of
the function has an intercept at (-4, 0).