Find a counterexample for the given conjecture. The difference of two odd numbers is always an odd number.

The difference of two odd number is always even as seen below.

Step-by-step explanation:

First odd number = x

Second odd number = x + 2

Third odd number = x + 4

Therefore

(x + 4) - (x + 2) = x

Where x is any odd number

Using 1 :

(1 + 4) - (1+2)

5 - 3 = 2

2 is not an odd number

We can say the difference of two odd number is always even

3

step-by-step explanation:

in standard form:

a= dictionaries

b= maps

you have to buy 3 dictionaries, so put a 3 next to the a (dictionaries) so that you can multiply them by each other.

a3+b= 60 (the amount of money you have)

we already know the cost of a=15 so replace a with $15

($15 x 3)+b=60

multiply 15 and 3 to get $45 and replace it with $45

45+b=60

and then replace b with 15 to get the total:

45+15=60

that means you have $15 left after buying 3 dictionaries.

15 divided by the cost of a map ($5) equals 3.

so you can buy 3 maps.

sorry if it was confusing!