Please help QUICKLY! please explain your answer, please give the correct answer

Step-by-step explanation:

When events are independent, the probability of some sequence of them is the product of the probabilities of the individual events in that sequence.

The probability of a child having spina bifida is 16% = 0.16, so the probability that the child will not have the condition is 1 - 0.16 = 0.84. The probability that 0 of 2 children will have spina bifida is ...

  p(0 for 2) = p(0 for 1)×p(0 for 1) = 0.84×0.84 = 0.7056

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There are two ways that 1 of 2 children can have spina bifida: either the first one does, or the second one does. These are mutually exclusive conditions, so their probabilities add:

  p(1 for 2) = p(1 for 1)×p(0 for 1) +p(0 for 1)×p(1 for 1) = 0.16×0.84 +0.84×0.16

  p(1 for 2) = 0.2688

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There is one way both children can have spina bifida:

  p(2 for 2) = p(1 for 1)×p(1 for 1) = 0.16×0.16 = 0.0256

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In summary, our probability distribution is ...

  p(X=0) = 0.7056

  p(X=1) = 0.2688

  p(X=2) = 0.0256

a.   since the profit made in 2012 is equal to the profit made in 2014, the profit is symmetric about the line y = 120,000.

step-by-step explanation:

x is greater than 5

step-by-step explanation:

2x+7 is greater than 17

    -7                           -7

2x is greater than 10

divide by 2 each side

x is greater than 5