Consider the function Upper F (x )equals StartFraction f (x )Over g (x )EndFractionF(x)= f(x) g(x) with g(a)equals=0. Does F necessarily have a vertical asymptote at xequals=a? Explain your reasoning.

No, not necessarily

Step-by-step explanation:

If g(a) = 0, it is not necessarily that F(x) will have a vertical asymptote at x = a

For instance, assume the following conditions:

In this conditions, g(a) = 0. F(a), however, can be written as:

In this particular case, F(x = a) does not show a vertical asymptote.

a) y = -3x +2

b) y = 1/2x -6

these 2 can be combined into one equation.

-3x +2 = .5x -6

8 = 3.5x

x = 8 / 3.5 = 2.2857142857

y = -3 * (8 / 3.5) +2

y = (-24 / 3.5) + 2

y = -4.8571428571

step-by-step explanation:

47.28 or 47.2857143

step-by-step explanation:

you just divide 331 by 7 and you get that answer. ( i think so tho)