Consider the function f(x)=−x24−6. In this problem you will calculate ∫40(−x24−6)dx by using the definition ∫baf(x)dx=limn→[infinity][∑i=1nf(xi )Δx] The summation inside the brackets is Rn which is the Riemann sum where the sample points are chosen to be the right-hand endpoints of each sub-interval. Calculate Rn for f(x)=−x24−6 on the interval [0,4] and write your answer as a function of n without any summation signs. You will need the summation formulas from your textbook.

i dont know if you cant find a way its best to actually add all of them start from 105 tho

step-by-step explanation:

i got 10.28 but that rounds up to 10.3

1. sometimes

2.   never

3   .08c = 7.50+.05c   250 pages

step-by-step explanation:

1.   sometimes

the theoretical probability of rolling a 1 is 1/6.   perhaps you got really lucky and never rolled a 1   in those 60 times.   your experimental probability is 0.   or perhaps you rolled a 1   20 times.   your experimental probability is 20/60 is 1/3.     it really just depends on how you rolled in that experiment.

2.   never

the probability of the event occurring is 1.   that is being 100 % sure it will happen.   that is the maximum amount of confidence we have.

3.   no customer card cost:   .08 times number of pages

customer card cost:   7.50 + .05 times number of pages

we want to find when it costs the same amount, so we will set these equal

let c = number of pages

.08c = 7.50+.05c

subtract .05c from each side

.08c-.05c = 7.5+.05c-.05c

.03c=7.5

divide each side by .03

.03c/.03 = 7.5/03

c =250  

the cost is the same at 250 pages