F(1) = 1
f(2)= 2
f(n) = f(n - 2) + f(n-1)
f(3) =

inverse operation of addition

place r′ so that qr′ is parallel to the tangent.

now we get that ∠r′py=∠pr′q, where y is on the tangent, on the opposite side of p from x.

also, because of the symmetry, ∠r′py=∠qpx.

finally, note that no matter where we place r, as long as it's on the correct arc, we have ∠prq=∠pr′q.

stringing all these equalities together, we end up with ∠prq=∠qpx.

this picture will show how its going to look like.

hope this by jack monhen