Which of the following explains why f(x) = log42
does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.
Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.
Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.

just needed some points but try socratic

can you rephrase the question ? it is unclear : -)

step-by-step explanation:

the correct option is 2.

step-by-step explanation:

according to the given information triangle abc is a right angle triangle with right angle at a. segment ab is 5 and segment ac is 7. point d is on segment bc and angles adb and adc are right angles.

it is given that triangles abd, cad, and cba are similar.

two triangles are similar if their corresponding sides are proportional.

in triangle cba, using pythagoras theorem

                      )

triangle abd and cba are similar,

                            (2)

triangle cad and cba are similar,

                      )

using (1), (2) and (3), we get

hence proved.

therefore option 2 is correct.