Mathematics, 28.03.2020 00:18 simon48

Which of the following explains why f(x) = log4X
does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.
Its inverse does not have any X-intercepts.
Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.
DONE

Answers: 2

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Which of the following explains why f(x) = log4X does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply. There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0. There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1. Its inverse does not have any X-intercepts. Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts. DONE

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Other questions on the subject: Mathematics

Questions in other subjects:

Which of the following explains why f(x) = log4X
does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.
Its inverse does not have any X-intercepts.
Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.
DONE