Are 40/1000 and 40% equivalent

 1000 is equal to (40 / 1000) x 100 = 4%

so.. yes. It is equivalent.

No, they are not equivalent

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the percentage of 40/1000 you must divide

40/1000=0.04

To make this a percentage multiply it by 100

Then you get 4%

4% and 40% are not the same

the polynomial is a perfect square trinomial of the form a^2-2ab+b^2:

option a. true

step-by-step explanation:

9x^2-12x+4

comparing with the form a^2-2ab+b^2

1.) a^2=9x^2

solving for a: square root both sides of the equation:

sqrt(a^2)=sqrt(9x^2)

a=sqrt(9) sqrt(x^2)

a=3x

2.) b^2=4

solving for b: square root both sides of the equation:

sqrt(b^2)=sqrt(4)

b=2

to be a perfet square trinomial 2ab must be equal to 12x. let's check:

2ab = 2 (3x) (2)

2ab = 12x

correct

could u provide us some answer choices or hmm idk maybe a table for us to anser with ? ?