According to government data, 74% of employed women have never been married. Rounding to 4 decimal places, if 15 employed women are randomly selected: a. What is the probability that exactly 2 of them have never been married

0.000001 = 0.0001% probability that exactly 2 of them have never been married

Step-by-step explanation:

For each employed women, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they have already been married, or they have not. The women are chosen at random, which means that the probability of a woman having been already married is independent from other women. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

In which is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

And p is the probability of X happening.

74% of employed women have never been married.

This means that

15 employed women are randomly selected

This means that

a. What is the probability that exactly 2 of them have never been married

This is P(X = 2).

0.000001 = 0.0001% probability that exactly 2 of them have never been married

i think the correct option is the second option.