Mathematics, 18.02.2020 23:09 noeltan12031

We've seen repeatedly that a horizontal dilation does not alter the graph's y-intercept. given the function f(x) and g(x)=f(kx), can you determine an algebraic argument for why f(x) and g(x) must have the same y-intercepts? (Hint: Think about how we always find the y-intercept of any function)

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