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Mathematics, 10.01.2020 06:31 jonellelewis2897

Aidan observes that if f(x) = 6 – 32, then the graphs of f(x) and f(x) – 4
both have a y-intercept of 2
does this mean that multiplying f(x) by 1 and subtracting 4 from f(x) transform the
graph in the same way?

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Aidan observes that if f(x) = 6 – 32, then the graphs of f(x) and f(x) – 4
both have a y-inter...

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