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Mathematics, 03.01.2020 06:31 natiem1803
Prove that if f is one-to-one, then f(x) ∩ f(y ) = f(x ∩ y ) for all x, y ⊆ a. is the converse true?
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Prove that if f is one-to-one, then f(x) ∩ f(y ) = f(x ∩ y ) for all x, y ⊆ a. is the converse true?...
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