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2 (i think)

Step-by-step explanation:

(im like 90% sure im right here...)

You take the 1-cos²(x) and turn it into sin²(x) because of the Pythagorean identity of Cos²x+Sin²x=1. You can do the same with the 1-sin²x and turn it into cos²x.

This leaves you with:

(√sin²x)/sinx and (√cos²x)/cosx

Then pretty much all you have to do from here is simplify

√sin²x is equal to sinx and similar goes for √cos²x

then you have sin/sin + cos/cos

This simplifies to 1+1

And as we all know 1+1=2