If f : {0, 1} n → {0, 1} m is a one way function, g : {0, 1} m → {0, 1} n is also a one way function.

(1). would f = g ◦ f : {0, 1} n → {0, 1} n be a one way function? here f(x) = g(f(
(2). if g or f is not one way, would f still be one way? briefly explain your answer.

in simplified version   it would be x ≤-4

step-by-step explanation:

multiply each term in x ≤-4 by -1

here is the

mark brainliest pl

19

step-by-step explanation:

2.2°  

step-by-step explanation:

let θ = the angle of elevation.

tanθ =77/2020

tanθ = 0.038 12

      θ = tan⁻¹0.038 12

      θ = 2.2°