Mathematics, 14.09.2019 05:20 719729

Let p(x, y) be a propositional function if ꓯyꓱxp(x, y) is true does it necessarily follow that ꓱxꓯyp(x, y) is true? justify your answer or give a counter-example

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Let p(x, y) be a propositional function if ꓯyꓱxp(x, y) is true does it necessarily follow that ꓱxꓯyp...