Me with this question! brainliest, ratting, , etc.
if f(x) varies directly with x and f(x) = 2 when x = 10,
then what is the value of f(x) when x = 40?

Find the direct variation using the formula f(x) = kx and solve for k:

Using the given f(x) = 2, when x = 10:

2 = 10k

Solve for k, by dividing both sides by 10:

k = 2/10 = 1/5

Now you have the value for k,

Solve for f(x)

f(x) = 1/5(40)

f(x) = 8

f(x) = 8

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that

f(x)∝x

Using constant of proportionality k we can say that

f(x) = kx

where k is always constant for all values of x and f(x)

now we are given that for x = 10 , we have f(x) = 2

This will help us to determine k , once we have the value of k , we can determine the f(x) for x = 40

Hence Now we have

f(x) = 2 , x = 10

putting them into

f(x)=kx

2=10k

k=1/5

Hence we now know the value of k as 1/5

Now we find f(x) at x=40

f(x)=(1/5) x 40

f(x) = 40/5

f(x) = 8

Hence this is our answer

power property.

1010: 3030

is it i think