Drag the tiles to the correct boxes to complete the pairs. match the one to one functions with their inverse functions.

Part 1)   ---->

Part 2) ----->

Part 3) ---->

Part 4) ---->

Step-by-step explanation:

Part 1) we have

Find the inverse

Let

y=f(x)

Exchange the variables, x for y and y for x

Isolate the variable y

Adds 17 both sides

Multiply by 3 both sides

Divide by 2 both sides

Let

so

Part 2) we have

Find the inverse

Let

y=f(x)

Exchange the variables, x for y and y for x

Isolate the variable y

Adds 10 both sides

Let

so

Part 3) we have

Find the inverse

Let

y=f(x)

Exchange the variables, x for y and y for x

Isolate the variable y

elevated to the cube both sides

Divide by 2 both sides

Let

so

Part 4) we have

Find the inverse

Let

y=f(x)

Exchange the variables, x for y and y for x

Isolate the variable y

Multiply by 5 both sides

Let

so

the answer   is 200

step-by-step explanation:

this is a problem about poisson probabilities.   i don't know if you've

already studied poisson distributions, or if you have a place to look

to read more about the subject.  

here's how you can see a poisson distribution coming.   when there are

a lot of events that may happen at any time (or any place), and when

you're counting how many of them happen at a particular time (or a

particular place), and each event is independent of the others, then

the result is a poisson distribution.   this is roughly true for the

chocolate chips; one chip being in a cookie has only a small effect on

the probability that another chip will be in the cookie.

once you know you have a poisson distribution, you know a lot.   there

is only one parameter to a poisson distribution, so if you know the

mean, you know everything.   the form of the distribution is

  probability of n chips = {[e^(-x)]*(x^n)} / (n! )

d.) yes, because the volume of the cone is greater than the volume of the sphere

step-by-step explanation: