Mathematics, 28.01.2020 21:05 Amaris0901

Which of the following explains why f(x) = log4x does not have a y-intercept? check all that apply.

1. there is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

2. there is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.

3. its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.

4. its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.
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Which of the following explains why f(x) = log4x does not have a y-intercept? check all that apply....