Which is the equivilent to sin-1(cos(pi/2))

Expression sin-1(cos(pi/2)) is equivalent to 0.

Step-by-step explanation:

If we write a term in the the form of y = cos(π/2)

Then the value of y will be = cos (180/2) = cos(90) = 0

Now we know the value of y is = 0

And if we will find the sin value of y then

sin y = sin (0) = 0

⇒ Then

Therefore we can say that the expression sin-1(cos(pi/2)) is equivalent to 0.

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step-by-step explanation:

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step-by-step explanation: