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Mathematics, 25.06.2019 02:30 lindamillscotton90
For a triangle to be obtuse only one of the angles must br shown to be obtuse. (in fact only one of the angles can possibly be obtuse) but for a triangle to be acute all three angles must be shown to be acute. explain why determining one acute angle with the pythagorean inequalities theorem shows that the triangle is acute
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For a triangle to be obtuse only one of the angles must br shown to be obtuse. (in fact only one of...
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