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True, based on the Transitive Property of Equality.

Step-by-step explanation:

Note that the Transitive Property of Equality states that "If a = b, & b = c, then a = c.

In this case it is the same.

∠1 ≅ ∠2 (because both are complementary), ∠1 ≅ ∠3 (again, both are complementary), then based on the Transitive Property, ∠2 ≅ ∠3, making all of them complementary angles

~Senpai

26

step-by-step explanation:

the answer is:

the answer is:

to solve the problem, we need to remember the quotient of power property, it's defined by the following relation:

if we have a quotienf of powers that have the same base, we need to keep the same base and subtract the exponent of the denominator power to the exponent of the numerator power.

so, we are given the expression:

then, calculating we have:

hence, the answer is:

have a nice day!