Why did the united states interfere in iran in the 1950s? what was the result of their interference?

As of August 1941, the United States was a neutral nation and had not yet entered as a belligerent in World War II. Therefore, the bloc known as 'The Allies' were principally (with Poland and France occupied by Germany in 1939 and 1940, respectively) the United Kingdom and the Soviet Union, recently forming their alliance after the German invasion of territories of the Western Soviet Union in June 1941. In August–September 1941, Pahlavi Iran had been jointly invaded and occupied by the Allied powers of the Soviet Red Army in the north and by the British in the centre and south.[3] Iran was used by the Americans and the British as a transportation route to provide vital supplies to the Soviet Union's war efforts

Bis correct according to edgnuity , thaaanks