When adolf hitler came to power in 1933, he immediately began to re-arm germany, a blatant violation of the disarmament clauses of the treaty of versailles. what was the reason for these clauses when the treaty was written in 1919? a. to place responsibility for world war i on france b. to ensure military readiness for world war ii c. to prevent another world war from occurring d. to share military technology between countr?

The correct answer is C. The Treaty of Versailles imposed disarmament clauses on Germany to prevent another world war from occurring.

Explanation:

The Treaty of Versailles was a peace treaty signed in the city of Versailles at the end of the First World War by more than fifty countries. This treaty officially ended with the state of war between Germany and the Allies of World War I. It was signed on June 28, 1919, five years after the Sarajevo bombing in which Archduke Franz Ferdinand was killed, the direct cause of the First World War. Although the armistice was signed months before (November 11, 1918) to end hostilities on the battlefield, it took six months of negotiations at the Paris Peace Conference to conclude the peace treaty. The Treaty of Versailles came into force on January 10, 1920.

Of the many provisions of the Treaty of Versailles, one of the most important and controversial provisions stipulated that the Central Powers (Germany and its allies) had to accept all moral and material responsibility for having caused the war and, under the terms of articles 231-248, they should disarm, make important territorial concessions to the winners and pay exorbitant economic compensations to the victorious States, all this in order to prevent future bellicose uprisings by these countries. The Treaty of Versailles was undermined early by later events after 1922 and was widely violated in Germany in the 1930s with the coming to power of Adolf Hitler.

i'm pretty sure the answer would be

c. england

hope this best of luck sorry if i'm wrong

~animaljamissofab ♥