Hey users, I could use some help; Why did the United States industrialize after Britain?

A. It was politically unstable.
B. It lacked access to new inventions.
C. It had not been allowed to manufacture goods.
D. It had a much smaller population.

B It lacked access to new inventions

The answer is C. it had not be allowed to manufacture goods.

Explanation:

The United States also benefited from conflict with Britain. During the War of 1812, Britain stopped shipping goods to the United States. As a result, American industries began to make many of the goods that Americans wanted.

have a great day! ^-^

"the sepoy rebellion was the result of many, many influences and stressors on the cultures of india living under british rule. in britain, it's called the sepoy mutiny on the indian mutiny, but in india, it's called the first war of independence.

the main reason is concerned to the british paramountcy , the belief in british   dominance in india political, economic and cultural life had been introduced in india about 1820."

"they were forced to grow crops that benefited the colonizing nations instead of feeding their own people."