subject
History, 01.11.2019 07:31 derick263

Which of the following explains why the munich agreement is an example of appeasement?

it resulted in the german invasion of other european countries.
it resulted in the german invasion of italy.
the participants gave hitler something valuable in exchange for peace.
the participants denied hitler permission to take the sudetenland.

ansver
Answers: 2

Other questions on the subject: History

image
History, 21.06.2019 18:30, OkK1510
The supreme court ruled that slaves could not sue because they could not read. they could not become lawyers. they lived in southern states. they were not considered citizens.
Answers: 1
image
History, 21.06.2019 21:00, danielahumajova6
Chief justice earl warren stated, “separate educational facilities are inherently unequal.” what did the use of “inherently” imply about segregation? 1/ by its very definition, it cannot be equal. 2/ it is an integral part of american society. 3/ based on its meaning, separation is a natural inclination. 4/ it was intended to be a state right, not a national mandate.
Answers: 1
image
History, 21.06.2019 23:30, mauri6381
Which is an example of a country that is overly dependent on another country for goods and sevices
Answers: 1
image
History, 22.06.2019 08:10, alfarodougoy8lvt
By the year 1900 new york city had more than just people of british heritage. there were more people of italian descent than the cities of florence, genoa and venice put together. it was home to more irish than dublin (the capital of ireland) and more germans than hamburg. joining them were many thousands of people of polish, hungarian, and czech descent. what term best describes new york cities changing culture? a a pot of chili b a bowl of sugar c a cup of coffee d a slice of cheese
Answers: 1
You know the right answer?
Which of the following explains why the munich agreement is an example of appeasement?

...

Questions in other subjects: