Which of the following explains why the munich agreement is an example of appeasement?
it resulted in the german invasion of other european countries.
it resulted in the german invasion of italy.
the participants gave hitler something valuable in exchange for peace.
the participants denied hitler permission to take the sudetenland.
Answers: 2
History, 21.06.2019 21:00, danielahumajova6
Chief justice earl warren stated, “separate educational facilities are inherently unequal.” what did the use of “inherently” imply about segregation? 1/ by its very definition, it cannot be equal. 2/ it is an integral part of american society. 3/ based on its meaning, separation is a natural inclination. 4/ it was intended to be a state right, not a national mandate.
Answers: 1
History, 22.06.2019 08:10, alfarodougoy8lvt
By the year 1900 new york city had more than just people of british heritage. there were more people of italian descent than the cities of florence, genoa and venice put together. it was home to more irish than dublin (the capital of ireland) and more germans than hamburg. joining them were many thousands of people of polish, hungarian, and czech descent. what term best describes new york cities changing culture? a a pot of chili b a bowl of sugar c a cup of coffee d a slice of cheese
Answers: 1
Which of the following explains why the munich agreement is an example of appeasement?
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