History, 09.09.2020 05:01 maustin5323
Which of the following explains why the Munich Agreement is an example of appeasement?
A. It resulted in the German invasion of other European countries.
B. It resulted in the German invasion of Italy.
C. The participants gave Hitler something valuable in exchange for peace.
D. The participants denied Hitler permission to take the Sudetenland.
Answers: 3
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How was hitler able to take control of czechoslovakia? ? a) czechoslovakia was forced to break its alliance with france & the soviet union to appease hitler b) without resistance, he extended his control of the sudetenland to include all of czechoslovakia c) the czechs reluctantly agreed to provide “lebensrum, or living space to the germans d) he was given czechoslovakia by great britain and france in keeping with the policy of containment. appreciate the
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Which of the following explains why the Munich Agreement is an example of appeasement?
A. It result...
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