Why was slavery in the south but not in the north

The north relied on more industrialized ways of producing goods,(factories,etc.) while the south relied on more agricultural ways.(plantations,etc.)

Explanation:

Mark me brainliest if I helped:D

for starters, there is the structural trend of rising primary government expenditure as a share of gdp, which reached 36% in 2014, up from 22% in 1991. this increase reflected a political desire to address the poverty and inequality that had gone unaddressed during previous decades. to support the increase, brazil’s government increased taxes on consumption and promoted progress toward labor-market formalization. nonetheless, public investment, particularly in infrastructure, took a hit. in fact, with the exception of the 2005-2008 period, total investment as a share of gdp has remained below 20% since 1991.

because people what other people gold

explanation: