Does churchill use the phrase the same way as before, or in a different way?

because he is trying to get a specific point across that he will not be defeated by the invading third reich, which is why us (united states), Britain, France, and Denmark all invaded normandy to overtake, and destroy the germans atlantic wall, it was one of the main points, and because of that raid, we were able to push them all the way back to their original borders, then invade germany, and completely exterminate the third reich which had destroyed all of europe, and due to exterminating them we won the war, and germany had to repay all damages done

ummm? is that supposed to be a question or a but this is a reason he won re-election

explanation:

"despite progress in the war, lincoln and most political pundits were convinced that he would lose his bid for reelection in 1864. the country was war weary and the democratic party's nominee, george mcclellan, was likely to negotiate a peace treaty with the confederacy if elected." - loc.gov

i don't see how you want other people to do your work for you and it is like you are just handing your assignment to anybody else and having them deal with it instead of your self i thought this site was for asking questions and somebody could you on it not just handing your work to somebody else to deal with it just saying don't mean to be mean just proving a fact.

explanation: