Nativist stereotypes of europeans being violent and disorderly contributed to the passage of the 18th amendment (prohibition of alcohol). true false

False

Explanation: The imposition of the 18th Amendment had more to do with social activism than with stereotypes.

Distilled and fermented liquors were brought from Europe for many reasons. Alcohol was considered healthy and medicinal, used for killing pain and soothing indigestion. It was also known as a curative and invigorating beverage. Some people even preferred drinking cider or beer instead of drinking water, since water in America was muddy and dirty.

However, drunkenness was condemned and punished, a signal of weakness. It was associated with domestic violence, family neglection, unemployment, and psychologic problems. In that scenario, a movement flourished defending moderation or temperance. Many leaders came up in different states, all of them influenced by Benjamin Rush’s tract of 1785. At first, those movements were small and segmented, but in 1825 the American Temperance Society was formed and unified many of those small groups. It had the support of both Catholic and Protestant churches and, as the years passed by, it split along two lines: radicals who defended total abstinence, and moderates who allowed some drinking. The Society continued pushing the states’ legislatures to enact statewide prohibition of alcohol, reasoning that such prohibition would decrease the number of unemployment and violence, at the same time that it would increase productivity. Because of this pressure, in 1919 the Eighteenth Amendment was established, declaring the production, transport, and sale of intoxicating liquors forbidden.

The 18th Amendment was repealed in 1933 mainly because of the profit that the government could have by taxing imported wines, gin, rum, and whiskey.

the right answer is the end of world war ii

after the end of a global wwii all the nations involved, in an attempt to create an organization to maintain world peace. this agreement would work settling international disputes via negotiation and arbitration instead of leading the issues escalate to another war.

alliances in ww1 were different from ww2 because the entente in ww1 made up of serbia,russia,france,britan,japan and italy later america  and all allied in a sort of balance of power and too keep germany,austria-hungary,and the ottomans down. russia allied the serbians in order to exert its influence in the balkans while france allied the russians because france was still in dismay and insulted after the defeat to the germans during the unification of germany and britian allied the belgians after the germans invasion of belgium.in ww2 the alliances were in a preemptive attempt to deter any further wars into happening while germany and italy allied since they were insulted and humiliated after the previous war while also sharing a similar ideology of facsim along with japan which all 3 had a want for world domination and agreed to assist one another in the endevours 

explanation: