Which statement best explains why the government serves as the plaintiff in a criminal case?

The government acts as the plaintiff in a criminal case because the crime that was committed is assumed to be against the citizens of a state, or country, as a whole. The offence of the criminal is against the laws of that jurisdiction.

This action removes the responsibility of capturing and punishing the criminal from that individual victim. It also stops "vigilante justice," or a civilian acting in a law enforcement capacity without legal authority.

john locke is most associated with the idea of consent of the governed which is the idea that the government is only valid if it has the consent of the people who are being governed.

hope this